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100% Pass Quiz 2026 AACN High-quality CCRN-Adult: CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Test Lab Questions

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AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

PROFESSIONAL CARING & ETHICAL PRACTICE: This section assesses the skills of Clinical Nurse Leaders in professional caring and ethical practice. It covers advocacy and moral agency, highlighting the importance of representing patients' interests in healthcare decisions. The section also addresses caring practices that promote patient-centered care and response to diversity, ensuring that care is tailored to individual needs.

Topic 4

The endocrine, hematology, gastrointestinal, renal, and integumentary domains are also covered, focusing on conditions like diabetes mellitus, acute kidney injury, and infections. This section highlights the need for nurses to manage complex patient scenarios involving multiple systems effectively.

Topic 5

In musculoskeletal, neurological, and psychosocial areas, the syllabus includes managing trauma, neurological disorders, and behavioral health issues. This emphasizes the holistic approach required in critical care settings. Lastly, multisystem complications such as sepsis and shock states are included to assess the ability to manage life-threatening conditions that affect multiple organ systems.

Topic 6

Facilitation of learning is emphasized, indicating the role of nurses in educating patients and families about health management. Collaboration is another key component, focusing on teamwork within healthcare settings to improve patient outcomes. Systems thinking is included to encourage understanding of how different components of healthcare interact. Finally, clinical inquiry is highlighted as a means to foster evidence-based practice and continuous improvement in patient care.

>> CCRN-Adult Test Lab Questions <<

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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q80-Q85):

NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following tests BEST evaluates for an occluded chest tube?

A. Chest x-ray
B. Physical examination
C. Computed tomography (CT)
D. Ultrasound

Answer: C

Explanation:
CTs and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) allow for the three-dimensional examination of the chest in situations where two-dimensional chest x-rays are insufficient. Malpositioned or occluded chest tubes are problems for which a three-dimensional view provided by CT and MRI is more sensitive than a chest x-ray.
Ultrasound is not used to assess for occlusions of chest tubes.
Physical examination may identify occlusions that are present externally; however, more advanced techniques are needed to evaluate for internal chest tube occlusions.

NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of central Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

A. Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol)
B. Aqueous vasopressin (Pitressin)
C. Desmopressin (DDAVP)
D. Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Desmopressin (DDAVP), an ADH analogue, is the drug of choice for central Diabetes Insipidus (DI) and is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. DDVAP acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys to increase water reabsorption and has very specific actions with little to no ADH-like activity elsewhere in the body, most notably vasopressor effects that are prominent in another vasopressin analogue, Pitressin. Pitressin is also less specific than DDVAP and can cause profound vasoconstriction in splanchnic, portal, coronary, cerebral, peripheral, pulmonary, and intrahepatic vessels. Thus, it is not preferred in DI therapy in critically or acutely ill patients unless DDVAP is ineffective.
Adjunctive therapy to enhance ADH release includes nonhormonal agents such as chlorpropamide, carbamazepine, thiazides, and NSAIDs.

NEW QUESTION # 82
While recording hourly ventilator checks on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse notes that the PIP has gradually increased by 5 cm H2O over the past 4 hours. This increase indicates

A. a leak in the ET tube cuff.
B. a decrease in lung compliance.
C. an improvement in pulmonary function.
D. a decrease in airway resistance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
An increase in peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) over time in a mechanically ventilated patient indicates a decrease in lung compliance. This means the lungs are becoming stiffer and less able to expand, which can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary edema, ARDS, or pneumothorax. It is important to address the underlying cause of decreased lung compliance to prevent further respiratory complications. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

NEW QUESTION # 83
A patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and cyanosis. The Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) shows a PaO2 of 55 mmHg, PaCO2 of 30 mmHg, and a pH of 7.48. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Asthma
D. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The symptoms of dyspnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and cyanosis, along with the hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis indicated by the ABG results, are typical for a pulmonary embolism. In ARDS, a patient would present with rapid-onset dyspnea and severe hypoxemia, but not necessarily diaphoresis or cyanosis. COPD and asthma would likely show hypercapnia on the ABG, not hypocapnia.

NEW QUESTION # 84
An absolute neutrophil count that is less than which of the following values indicates a severely compromised immune system response:

A. 5,000 cells/mm3
B. 20,000 cells/mm3
C. 10,000 cells/mm3
D. 1,000 cells/mm3

Answer: D

Explanation:
An absolute neutrophil count of less than 1000 cells/mm3 severely compromises immune system response, particularly to bacterial infections.

NEW QUESTION # 85
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